4097: [Usaco2013 dec]Vacation Planning

Description

Air Bovinia is planning to connect the N farms (1 <= N <= 200) that the cows live on. As with any airline, K of these farms (1 <= K <= 100, K <= N) have been selected as hubs. The farms are conveniently numbered 1..N, with farms 1..K being the hubs. Currently there are M (1 <= M <= 10,000) one-way flights connecting these farms. Flight i travels from farm u_i to farm v_i, and costs d_i dollars (1 <= d_i <= 1,000,000). The airline recently received a request for Q (1 <= Q <= 10,000) one-way trips. The ith trip is from farm a_i to farm b_i. In order to get from a_i to b_i, the trip may include any sequence of direct flights (possibly even visiting the same farm multiple times), but it must include at least one hub (which may or may not be be the start or the destination). This requirement may result in there being no valid route from a_i to b_i. For all other trip requests, however, your goal is to help Air Bovinia determine the minimum cost of a valid route. 

Input

* Line 1: Four integers: N, M, K, and Q. 
* Lines 2..1+M: Line i+1 contains u_i, v_i, and d_i for flight i. 
* Lines 2+M..1+M+Q: Line 1+M+i describes the ith trip in terms of a_i and b_i 

Output

* Line 1: The number of trips (out of Q) for which a valid route is possible. 
* Line 2: The sum, over all trips for which a valid route is possible, of the minimum possible route cost.

Sample Input

3 3 1 3
3 1 10
1 3 10
1 2 7
3 2
2 3
1 2
INPUT DETAILS: There are three farms (numbered 1..3); farm 1 is a hub. There is a $10 flight from farm 3 to farm 1, and so on. We wish to look for trips from farm 3 to farm 2, from 2->3, and from 1->2.

Sample Output

2
24
OUTPUT DETAILS: The trip from 3->2 has only one possible route, of cost 10+7. The trip from 2->3 has no valid route, since there is no flight leaving farm 2. The trip from 1->2 has only one valid route again, of cost 7.
Contest has ended. No further submissions allowed.

Source

Silver

题解:

题意是n个点m条有向边,求两两之间的最短路,要求路径上必须经过编号1~k的至少一个点

第一次接触分层图最短路。。

其实构图还是挺简单的,把图复制成两份,其中1到k的点向下连边权为0的边。

然后floyd最短路。。

#include<stdio.h>
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int n,m,K,Q,i,j,k,x,y,z,cnt,f[405][405];
long long ans;
int main()
{
scanf("%d%d%d%d",&n,&m,&K,&Q);
for(i=1;i<=n<<1;i++)
for(j=1;j<=n<<1;j++) f[i][j]=1e9;
for(i=1;i<=m;i++)
{
scanf("%d%d%d",&x,&y,&z);
f[x][y]=f[x+n][y+n]=z;
}
for(i=1;i<=K;i++) f[i][n+i]=0;
for(k=1;k<=n<<1;k++)
for(i=1;i<=n<<1;i++)
for(j=1;j<=n<<1;j++)
if(f[i][k]+f[k][j]<f[i][j]) f[i][j]=f[i][k]+f[k][j];
while(Q--)
{
scanf("%d%d",&x,&y);
if(f[x][y+n]!=1e9)
{
cnt++;
ans+=f[x][y+n];
}
}
cout<<cnt<<endl<<ans;
return 0;
}

  

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